Yesterday, my dad texted my mom (his ex-wife), and my mother in law, basically asking if he could "have us" for Christmas day this year. He referred to last year when he only "got us" on Christmas eve, and he said he wants to make sure we have equal time with all family, now that it's a bigger extended family. (Wife and I got married in June 2022). He says his mom will be in town, and says "she'll be 88 next month" in one of his texts to my mom. It's like he's trying to guilt us into coming over because of his aging mother, and like we should drop any other plans for her. In the text to my mother in law, he expressed disappointment that my wife and I could not see him for Thanksgiving, because we already had plans with other family. His text to MIL also included the sentence "they were with you guys for Christmas day/dinner last year, requesting that we can have them this year". Both MIL and my mom texted him basically saying "It's up to them, why are you texting us? ". Does this not seem like my dad is trying to arrange a play date for a 4 year old? My wife and I are married and moved out, and he is texting the moms asking to 'have' us for Christmas. Why did he not just text us (Wife and I) directly? What did he think he was going to accomplish by texting the moms? How do I handle this? There is no chance I am going to get bullied or pressured into spending Christmas day with him after this.
TL;DR - my dad texted both my mom and mother in law asking to 'have us' for Christmas this year, rather than texting me or my wife asking what WE want to do.
Submitted October 11, 2022 at 09:07AM by InfamousOcelot2 https://ift.tt/sO7xvJj
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